Re: The simple essence of Proof Theoretic Semantics
André G. Isaak <[email protected]>
| Newsgroups | sci.logic,comp.theory,sci.math,comp.ai.philosophy |
|---|---|
| Organization | Christians and Atheists United Against Creeping Agnosticism |
| Message-ID | <[email protected]> |
On 2026-07-01 13:47, olcott wrote: > On 7/1/2026 2:23 PM, André G. Isaak wrote: >> On 2026-07-01 12:50, olcott wrote: >>> On 7/1/2026 1:40 PM, André G. Isaak wrote: >>>> On 2026-07-01 12:20, olcott wrote: >>>>> On 7/1/2026 1:10 PM, André G. Isaak wrote: >>>>>> On 2026-07-01 12:01, olcott wrote: >>>>>>> On 7/1/2026 12:33 PM, dbush wrote: >>>>>>>> On 7/1/2026 10:40 AM, olcott wrote: >>>>>> >>>>>>>>> The truth value of (∀ x, S(x) ≠ x) does not exist in Q. >>>>>>>> >>>>>>>> In your own words, what does it mean for the truth value of >>>>>>>> statement to not exist in a formal system? >>>>>>>> >>>>>>> >>>>>>> The same thing as: "cats are animals" expressed in >>>>>>> English has no English meaning in Chinese. >>>>>>> >>>>>>> Until "cats are animals" is translated into Chinese >>>>>>> it is just random gibberish that has no meaning or >>>>>>> truth value in Chinese. >>>>>> >>>>>> But ∀ x, S(x) ≠ x *isn't* random gibberish in Q. It is a well- >>>>>> formed expression of Q that has a well-defined meaning. It just >>>>>> happens to be unprovable. If it were random gibberish no one would >>>>>> have entertained the question of whether it could or could not be >>>>>> proven in Q. >>>>>> >>>>>> André >>>>>> >>>>> >>>>> It has no finite sequence of inference steps between >>>>> the expression and the axioms of Q. This seems to >>>>> mean that (∀x, S(x) ≠ x) is ungrounded in the atomic >>>>> base of Q in many of the different ways that this >>>>> can be expressed by different PTS authors. >>>> >>>> Having no finite sequence of inference steps between the expression >>>> and the axioms of Q is *not* the same thing as random gibberish. >>> >>> It is closer to an English word such as "cat" that is >>> defined in English us undefined in Chinese. >> >> That's a completely spurious analogy. 'cat' isn't an expression of the >> Chinese language. ∀ x, S(x) ≠ x *is* an expression of the language of Q. >> >>>> It simply means it is unprovable in Q. >> >> Then you're either using a completely idiosyncratic definition of >> 'gibberish' or a completely idiosyncratic definition of 'provable' >> (or both). That's why people keep asking you to provide *your* >> definitions, but you only respond with examples or analogies which >> fail to clarify what you might mean. >> >>> Which means something entirely different in PTS than >>> it means in TCS. >> >> unprovable means the same thing in both. >> > > Wittgenstein (1937) > 'True in Russell's system' means, as was said: > proved in Russell's system; and 'false in Russell's > system' means: the opposite has been proved > in Russell's system You keep quoting this particular bit despite the fact that its been pointed out on numerous occasions that Wittgenstein wrote the above in his private notes *before* he had actually read Gödel's paper, and he never went on to publish anything to this effect suggesting he didn't subscribe to this position after he'd actually read Gödel. > Does not mean that G is undecidable in PA. It doesn't say anything at all about whether G is decidable in PA. André -- To email remove 'invalid' & replace 'gm' with well known Google mail service.