Re: charset question (Greek)

On Wed, Mar 13, 2002 at 04:18:38PM +0100, [email protected] wrote:
> > On Wed, Mar 13, 2002 at 03:14:33PM +0100, Andreas Fink wrote:
> > > well in theory this should be the case and it probably is for non
> > > european languages but for historical reasons there are some
> > > duplications.
> 
> Duplication is in the eye of the beholder. Or rather his language.

Not in case of sequences that Unicode defines to be identical.

> Or CCC. But beware of the fact that this normalization is generally not
> trivial, nor reversible - and for approximations often needs either source
> or target -language-. Example: latin-1 0xFF: the y\: which some dutch
> people would rather see is a ligature like ij.

That character is an y-umlaut.  A completely useless character, but
there it is.  It's not the only useless character in latin-1.
It might be that some dutch people want it to be an ij ligature, but
that doesn't make it one.  Pretending that it is one is just an abuse
of the character set.  I don't think Kannel should go out of its way
to support such things.

-- 
Richard Braakman
Will write free software for money.
See http://www.xs4all.nl/~dark/resume.html