Re: Can a legal non-alert be misinformation anyway?

Gordon Rainsford wrote:
> Short answer to the title question is "no".
> 
> Peripheral point: wouldn't your partner bid 4S as a slam try in diamonds?
> 

well, he could, in which case my 5Di does not tell him anything. Fact is 
that I can assume with 95% certainty that this is not the case, and I 
don't have UI which forces me to still go for the 5% option (if the UI 
laws were that harsh - which I don't believe they are)

> On Wed, Nov 7, 2018 at 10:43 AM Herman De Wael <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> 
>     This happened yesterday:
> 
>     I have a massive diamond suit and I open 4Di.
>     In Belgium, all bids past 3NT must not be alerted, and of course my
>     partner does not do so.
>     LHO passes, and my partner bids 4Sp.
>     I do not need any UI (I don't have any either), to know that he thinks
>     4Di was a transfer to spades.
>     We don't play that, but that does not matter.
>     Of course I don't alert, and when I next bid 5Di, he understands and
>     passes. We make that contract.
>     However, the opponents can make 6Sp.
> 
>     Fourth seat has so many spades that it should have been clear to him
>     that 4Di was not a transfer to a solid spade suit. But that's beside
>     the
>     point. (Suppose he has solid hearts instead)
> 
>     When a non-alertable call is followed by another non-alertable call
>     which seems to describe the first call completely, is this
>     misinformation? If fourth seat had asked, he would have received the
>     correct (mis-)explanation, but if he just assumes, isn't that the same
>     thing? Do we really want people to ask obvious questions?
> 
>     Herman.
> 
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