Re: coex draft last call -- review of Section 2
"C. M. Heard" <[email protected]> Tue, 7 Jan 2003 13:18:18 -0800 (PST)
| Newsgroups | gmane.ietf.snmpv3 |
|---|---|
| Message-ID | <[email protected]> |
On Tue, 7 Jan 2003, David T. Perkins wrote: > Mike, did you make this claim.... > >> .... there is nothing illegal > >> about an INTEGER with no subrange or enumerations; in fact it's > >> completely equivalent to Integer32 with no subrange. > > Would you show me where the INTEGER without a sub-range (or enumerations) > is legal? Well, here is the relevant text from RFC 2578, Section 7.1.1: The Integer32 type represents integer-valued information between -2^31 and 2^31-1 inclusive (-2147483648 to 2147483647 decimal). This type is indistinguishable from the INTEGER type. Both the INTEGER and Integer32 types may be sub-typed to be more constrained than the Integer32 type. The INTEGER type (but not the Integer32 type) may also be used to represent integer-valued information as named-number enumerations. In this case, only those named-numbers so enumerated may be present as a value. Note that although it is recommended that enumerated values start at 1 and be numbered contiguously, any valid value for Integer32 is allowed for an enumerated value and, further, enumerated values needn't be contiguously assigned. The first paragraph says that the Integer32 and INTEGER types are indistinguishable, so I would expect that INTEGER could be used wherever Integer32 could be used, unless a subsequent provision of the specification said otherwise. The second paragraph indeed makes such an exception, which is that one is allowed to use enumerations with INTEGER but not Integer32. But I could find is no language in RFC 2578 that prohibits using an unconstrained INTEGER. On that basis I concluded that it's legal. Now, can you explain to me why that reading is wrong? Mike