Re: Data held by ISPs

In article 
<CAJ-LMZVwnWHR8oR=kHqQf1hcrdVNzB-V=1wWrUu4sd65rKU9Fw-JsoAwUIsXosN+BqQ9rBEUg@public.gmane.org>, 
Mark Harrison <mark-vKXohMnnRSNkbu+0n/[email protected]> writes
></snip>
>IP addresses (of the subscriber) are personal data.
>
>Although it's taken a long time for this to be nailed into law (rather 
>than denied by the MRD brigade).
></snip>
>
>I'm surprised. IP addresses from ISP's are shared. They are rarely 
>given to end devices but rather routers that are also shared. How could 
>they be classed as identifiable? To whom under the law?

Some routers are shared, others aren't[1]. But what you've asked neatly 
summarises the conceptual wrangle that's being going on. One camp says 
that because some IP addresses are shared, then none of them ought to 
qualify as Personal Data; the other camp says that if some of them 
aren't shared, then all of them ought to be given the respect accorded 
to Personal Data - especially when it's hard to tell which are which.

[1] Single-person households, for example; or websites with a very 
distinct content administrator.
-- 
Roland Perry