Re: [Imap-protocol] Seeking clarity on Gmail "Access for less secure apps" setting for non XOAuth2 access
Arnt Gulbrandsen <[email protected]> Thu, 25 Sep 2014 12:47:12 +0200
| Newsgroups | gmane.mail.imap.general |
|---|---|
| Message-ID | <[email protected]> |
Neil Hunsperger answers me: > That's a great question about avoiding propagating existing > protocol violations. My goal was to avoid introducing more > protocol violations. Looking at the IMAP fetch responses, it > appears to me that the server can always send the original email > content in a literal to follow RFC 3501's own syntax. That's true, but that doesn't follow 5322's syntax, and I don't see any permission in 3501 to ignore what 5322 says. Or 2822, or 4422/2222, or... The case Brandon has is similar: The client introduces a violation and the server's straightforward error response propagates that. I did the same this summer, when I decided that if a client sends an errant SMTP command that includes non-ASCII, that client grants the server permission to use non-ASCII in the error message too (in the code I wrote that would be "parse error near ære", "will not relay to ære@være.høye" or similar). > I'm not sure if you were asking about a server deeply parsing > email content for the purpose of protecting the client from > 8-bit content found where RFC 5322 disallows it. No, I'm asking whether you have a sensible argument for arguing that the server must take the MUSTs in some RFCs seriously and can ignore the MUSTs in others. Arnt _______________________________________________ Imap-protocol mailing list [email protected] http://mailman13.u.washington.edu/mailman/listinfo/imap-protocol