>Exactly how does "church state separation" apply to the individual states? On the face of it it >seems like it does not, unless the individual state's constitution specifies it. (Which Florida's >does, hence the original story.)
Uh, I am wondering why it would not apply to the states? I realize the states have their own constitutions-but they are still overshadowed by The Constitution-are they not?
Thom
http://thomwade.wordpress.com/
http://www.cafepress.com/Thomwade
http://www.in-one-ear.com
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