Re: apply1 and $

Malcolm Wallace <[email protected]> Wed, 15 Dec 2004 13:50:59 +0000

Newsgroups	gmane.comp.lang.haskell.nhc.user
Organization	Dept of Computer Science, University of York
Message-ID	<[email protected]>

Arunkumar S Jadhav <[email protected]> writes:

> 	Byte codes for functions "apply1" and "$" are exactly same
> (correct me if I'm am wrong).

Yes, the bytecode is the same.  In fact the source code for both is
identical too, apart from the name.

> Just "apply1" is used while building
> a graph and "$" is used (also while building a graph) while
> interpreting the byte code "APPLY n". Can anyone tell why is this
> distinction being made ? Because as I see it, apply1 could've been
> used in place of "$" and the difference wold've been nothing.

There is no good reason to have two different names.  It was probably
a historical accident.

Regards,
    Malcolm