apply1 and $

Arunkumar S Jadhav <[email protected]> Tue, 14 Dec 2004 23:51:57 +0530

Newsgroups	gmane.comp.lang.haskell.nhc.user
Organization	KReSIT
Message-ID	<[email protected]>

Hello All,
	Byte codes for functions "apply1" and "$" are exactly same
(correct me if I'm am wrong). Just "apply1" is used while building
a graph and "$" is used (also while building a graph) while
interpreting the byte code "APPLY n". Can anyone tell why is this
distinction being made ? Because as I see it, apply1 could've been
used in place of "$" and the difference wold've been nothing.

Regards,
------------------------------------
Arunkumar S Jadhav, Masters Student, 
KReSIT, IIT-Bombay, India
Ph: +91-22-25764967
http://www.it.iitb.ac.in/~arunk
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I exist because I work.