Re: ibid or idem

Thank you very much. Checking again on Umberto Eco's "How to *Write* a
Master's *Thesis*" (yeah, the same Eco from "Focault's Pendulum" or "The
Name of the Rose") I found the same I told you on my first email:

"Ibidem" is used for consecutive references of the same book, and page.

So, I'm really confused. Eco's name on the theme is widely know in latin
countries and I believe this book is the one most methodology teachers use,
at least in latin countries.

On 5/18/06, Peter Flynn <[email protected]> wrote:
>
> Julio Rojas wrote:
> > Hi, I keep watching in the manual of jurabib the use of "ibid." for
> > repetitive uses of the same reference. Here in Spain (and in most books
> > in latin languages I have seen) we use "ibid." to quote the same page of
>
> > the same reference previously used.
> >
> > For example:
> >
> > bla bla bla bla (Pérez:1989, 25) and also bla bla bla (ibid.) --->
> > meaning that both references are from the same book and page.
>
> Ibid references the same author/title but may be a different page.
>
>
> > For repetitive uses of the same reference with diferent pages of it we
> > use "idem". For example:
> >
> > bla bla bla bla (Pérez:1989, 25) and also bla bla bla (idem, 28) --->
> > meaning that both references are from the same book but different pages
>
> I have never seen that before. Idem refers only to an author: it
> requires a title after it.
>
> Your description is different from the usage defined in dictionaries:
>
> ibidem. "in the same place" [...] makes reference to an identical source
> cited in an immediately preceding footnote. For example, in the footnote
> "16. Ibid., p.77" the source referred to in footnote 15 is being
> referred to again, but this time citing page 77 of that source.
>
> idem. "the same" [...] appears in footnotes containing more than one
> reference to works by the same author. It is used in place of the
> author's name after the initial reference.
>
> (Ehrlich, Eugene. Nil Desperandum: A Dictionary of Latin Tags and
> Phrases. BCA, Swindon, 1992, . First published as "Amo, Amas, Amat
> and More", Robert Hale, London, 1985.)
>
>
> > I would like to know two things:
> >
> > 1- Why jurabib uses this format? Is it common in Germany to use it like
> > that?
> > 2- How can I change "ibid." for "idem"?
>
> There may be a cultural difference in usage but I would be very
> surprised. The reason for using Latin is normally because it means
> exactly the *same* across cultures.
>
> ///Peter
>
>
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-- 
-------------------------------------------------
Julio Rojas
[email protected]