Re: Can a legal non-alert be misinformation anyway?

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For your information, here is the relevant part of the EBL Alerting policy:

"If screens are not in use, do NOT alert the following:

   1. All doubles.
   2. Any no-trump bid which suggests a balanced or semi-balanced hand, or
   suggests a no-trump contract.
   3. Any call at the four level or higher, with the exception of
   conventional calls on the first round of the auction."

Eitan


On Wed, 7 Nov 2018 at 12:43, Herman De Wael <[email protected]> wrote:

> This happened yesterday:
>
> I have a massive diamond suit and I open 4Di.
> In Belgium, all bids past 3NT must not be alerted, and of course my
> partner does not do so.
> LHO passes, and my partner bids 4Sp.
> I do not need any UI (I don't have any either), to know that he thinks
> 4Di was a transfer to spades.
> We don't play that, but that does not matter.
> Of course I don't alert, and when I next bid 5Di, he understands and
> passes. We make that contract.
> However, the opponents can make 6Sp.
>
> Fourth seat has so many spades that it should have been clear to him
> that 4Di was not a transfer to a solid spade suit. But that's beside the
> point. (Suppose he has solid hearts instead)
>
> When a non-alertable call is followed by another non-alertable call
> which seems to describe the first call completely, is this
> misinformation? If fourth seat had asked, he would have received the
> correct (mis-)explanation, but if he just assumes, isn't that the same
> thing? Do we really want people to ask obvious questions?
>
> Herman.
>
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<div dir=3D"ltr"><div dir=3D"ltr"><div class=3D"gmail_default" style=3D"fon=
t-size:small">For your information, here is the relevant part of the EBL Al=
erting policy:</div><div class=3D"gmail_default" style=3D"font-size:small">=
<br></div><div class=3D"gmail_default" style=3D"font-size:small">&quot;If s=
creens are not in use, do NOT alert the following:<br></div><div class=3D"g=
mail_default" style=3D"font-size:small"><ol><li>All doubles.</li><li>Any no=
-trump bid which suggests a balanced or semi-balanced hand, or suggests a n=
o-trump contract.</li><li>Any call at the four level or higher, with the ex=
ception of conventional calls on the first round of the auction.&quot;</li>=
</ol></div><div class=3D"gmail-yj6qo gmail-ajU"><div tabindex=3D"0" class=
=3D"gmail-ajR">Eitan</div><div tabindex=3D"0" class=3D"gmail-ajR"><img clas=
s=3D"gmail-ajT" src=3D"https://ssl.gstatic.com/ui/v1/icons/mail/images/clea=
rdot.gif"></div></div><br></div></div><br><div class=3D"gmail_quote"><div d=
ir=3D"ltr">On Wed, 7 Nov 2018 at 12:43, Herman De Wael &lt;<a href=3D"mailt=
o:[email protected]">[email protected]</a>&gt; wrote:<br></div><blockquot=
e class=3D"gmail_quote" style=3D"margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc sol=
id;padding-left:1ex">This happened yesterday:<br>
<br>
I have a massive diamond suit and I open 4Di.<br>
In Belgium, all bids past 3NT must not be alerted, and of course my <br>
partner does not do so.<br>
LHO passes, and my partner bids 4Sp.<br>
I do not need any UI (I don&#39;t have any either), to know that he thinks =
<br>
4Di was a transfer to spades.<br>
We don&#39;t play that, but that does not matter.<br>
Of course I don&#39;t alert, and when I next bid 5Di, he understands and <b=
r>
passes. We make that contract.<br>
However, the opponents can make 6Sp.<br>
<br>
Fourth seat has so many spades that it should have been clear to him <br>
that 4Di was not a transfer to a solid spade suit. But that&#39;s beside th=
e <br>
point. (Suppose he has solid hearts instead)<br>
<br>
When a non-alertable call is followed by another non-alertable call <br>
which seems to describe the first call completely, is this <br>
misinformation? If fourth seat had asked, he would have received the <br>
correct (mis-)explanation, but if he just assumes, isn&#39;t that the same =
<br>
thing? Do we really want people to ask obvious questions?<br>
<br>
Herman.<br>
<br>
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</blockquote></div>

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