Re: antiphishing idea
Chris Lewis <[email protected]>
| Newsgroups | gmane.ietf.asrg |
|---|---|
| Message-ID | <[email protected]> |
On 11/17/2011 02:58 PM, Martijn Grooten wrote: >> Domains should have to publish in their DNSs the message-id (among any >> other thing) through a TXT or A record of any legit mail sent by them. >> The TTLs of those records can be adjusted to compensate for queued >> mails, etc. > > I take it you mean the message-id is somehow converted into a domain name and a DNS lookup is performed against that DNS and if the A or TXT record for that domain is some kind of affirmative value, this means that this is a 'valid message-id'? I got the impression from the original that he was not doing that, and looking up the _whole_ Message-ID. Which implies rather more tightly coupled MTA/DNS servers than is probably feasible. High volume mail servers would have a horrendous problem with DNS bloat and at the same time, require very low TTLs. Ouch. Even if you only used a domain name same problem. There's no easy transition either - you'd never know if whom you were doing these queries actually implemented this stuff, and NXDOMAIN could mean either "BAD! BAD! discard!" or "I don't implement that feature". > I've got many doubts about this: do people who fall for such scams care about the value of From? Doesn't this have the same issues as SPF -all and ADSP? Does this scale? But my most important concern is: wouldn't it be trivial to perform a relay attack using this method? It's trying to make "SPF -all" survive forwarding, but not as well as DKIM would (absent message mangulation). >> When you receive a mail from A and "aparently" from B you can query A >> and B DNSs looking for the message-id the mail has. If you have a >> nxdomain or whatever error from them you can score the mail as >> phishing! ..on the other hand if you have a hit from at least one of >> them you can be confident that this is the real domain that sends that >> mail or it sends it on behalf the real address! > > I don't get this. Are you saying that if I send an email with MAIL FROM: example.com and Header From: paypal.com and the message-id on example.com that I can then get this message-id validated simply because I happen to control example.com? He's suggesting asking _both_ A and B. So both paypal.com and example.com would have to say "Yup, I know that Message-ID". So, you'd have to control example.com and have one (presumably recent) sample Message-ID from paypal.com, and you could send as many as you want with any contents you want. [Few (if any) MTAs enforce unique Message-IDs on inbound email.] Neither SPF or DKIM are perfect, but it behooves us to not try to bandaid their defects with something like this. Patching a hole in a submarine with window screening comes to mind as a suitable analogy ;-)