Re: Places across Hierarchy boundaries
Florian Teply <[email protected]>
| Newsgroups | gmane.comp.genealogy.gramps.user |
|---|---|
| Message-ID | <[email protected]> |
Do I understand you correctly in the way that "Places" in gramps refer not to a physical location, but rather a logical one? Let's assume the following: A single physical location, for example a house located somewhere in Berlin, has seen several events take place. Say, for the sake of argument, the birth of a two siblings, dating to 1947 and 1950. So, even though those two births happened in the same bedroom, they would end up in two different places just because a few years have passed in between? That seems pretty counterintuitive to me. On the other hand, now as I think of it, it looks like an artifact due to different levels of detail involved: The two births mentioned probably should be in the same place (on house level) regardless of the political changes that happened in the meantime. It's just the mapping to higher level places, that end up being time-dependent: The suburb where the appartment is located in, is part of Berlin until 1949 and after 1990, and part of East Berlin for the time in between. Just as it might have been (part of) another village before it legally became part of Berlin in 1921... On 04.02.22 23:55, Patrice Legoux wrote: > Berlin was 2 cities, East-Berlin and West-Berlin, between 1949 and 1991 > > https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/East_Berlin > <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/East_Berlin> > > So before 1949 it is Berlin, between 1949 and 1960 two parts of the > city, then back to only one city in 1991. > > You must have 3 places, two of them, East-Berlin and West-Berlin, > doesn't exist anymore. > > Le ven. 4 févr. 2022 à 22:42, Florian Teply <[email protected] > <mailto:[email protected]>> a écrit : > > Hi there, > > currently I'm trying to wrap my head around how places are handled in > gramps. > We all know that in history places of all sizes were moved not > physically but politically between bigger places. That is, City A might > have belonged to Country Z until Year Y, and to country G after that > time. But now I have faced a situation, where it's not too clear to me > how to handle: I discovered ancestors which lived in Berlin, Germany. > > I do suspect that there might not be a definitive answer here as it > becomes somewhat philosophical, but consider this: > As you probably know, Berlin existed as a single entity before the end > of WW II. Afterwards, parts of it belonged to the German Democratic > Republic, while other parts belonged to the Federal Republic of Germany > (or strictly speaking did not belong to it legally, even though most > laws were enacted to be valid in the Federal Republic of Germany and > Berlin (West)), and since 1990 all these parts belong to one legal > entity. Question is: how would you model this in gramps? > Personally I feel, even though the city was split between countries, it > is still one city and should as such be one place. But can a place > belong to two mutually exclusive entities at the same time? For the > individual suburbs which make up Berlin as a whole the situation is > clear, as they belonged to either this or that part, but not both > simultaneously. > This could be solved using two places of the same name. On the other > hand, having two places Berlin, Germany seems to lead to confusion down > the road in cases where it is not entirely clear which one is > applicable. > > What would you do? > > Best regards, > Florian > > > -- > Gramps-users mailing list > [email protected] > <mailto:[email protected]> > https://lists.sourceforge.net/lists/listinfo/gramps-users > <https://lists.sourceforge.net/lists/listinfo/gramps-users> > https://gramps-project.org <https://gramps-project.org> > -- Gramps-users mailing list [email protected] https://lists.sourceforge.net/lists/listinfo/gramps-users https://gramps-project.org